Part 107 Operations Practice Questions (Free)

Question 1

In the 3P model, which checklist does the PHAK pair with the Process step? Options: A) CARE B) PAVE C) TEAM

Accepted Answer

A) CARE. The PHAK pairs PAVE with Perceive, CARE with Process and TEAM with Perform. PAVE is used to identify hazards. TEAM is used to choose and carry out risk controls.

Question 2

An ATIS recording ends with "Advise on initial contact you have information Kilo." What does Kilo identify? Options: A) The runway in use for arrivals and departures at the airport B) The controller who recorded this broadcast for the tower C) The current recording, named by its phonetic letter

Accepted Answer

C) The current recording, named by its phonetic letter. AIM 4-1-13 says each ATIS broadcast carries a phonetic letter code, and pilots repeat that code on initial contact to show they have the current information. The runway in use is given by number within the broadcast. Controllers are not identified by the ATIS code letter.

Question 3

At night, a remote pilot stares at the hovering drone's single light against a dark sky. After several seconds the light seems to wander, but telemetry shows the drone holding position. What is happening? Options: A) False horizon B) Flicker vertigo C) Autokinesis

Accepted Answer

C) Autokinesis. The PHAK says autokinesis comes from staring at a single point of light against a dark background for more than a few seconds; apparent movement begins in about 8 to 10 seconds. A false horizon is a confusion of lights or terrain with the real horizon. Flicker vertigo is caused by light flickering at 4 to 20 cycles per second.

Question 4

During an automated mapping mission, the remote pilot sits in the truck answering email while the drone flies its preprogrammed grid. What is wrong with this? Options: A) Nothing, because the autopilot holds the altitude and route programmed for the grid B) It is complacency: the remote PIC must still keep the drone in sight and watch for traffic C) Nothing, as long as return-to-home is set and the battery warning is turned on

Accepted Answer

B) It is complacency: the remote PIC must still keep the drone in sight and watch for traffic. AC 107-2A warns that complacency and overconfidence are risks, and automation does not remove the remote PIC's duties. Under 14 CFR 107.31 and 107.37 the remote PIC must keep visual line of sight and yield to other aircraft throughout the flight. An autopilot or return-to-home setting cannot see a low-flying helicopter.

Question 5

In the late afternoon, the only spot with a view of the drone puts the VO looking almost straight into the low sun. What should the remote PIC do? Options: A) Keep the VO there, because glare does not affect detection of aircraft B) Reposition the VO or the operation so the VO is not looking into the sun C) Have the VO watch the drone through binoculars for the whole flight

Accepted Answer

B) Reposition the VO or the operation so the VO is not looking into the sun. AIM 8-1-8 notes that smoke, haze, dust, rain and looking toward the sun greatly reduce the ability to detect other aircraft, and AC 107-2A requires the remote PIC to position the VO so the VO can see the aircraft. Glare does reduce detection. Binoculars may be used only momentarily, not to maintain visual line of sight.

Question 6

Where should a remote pilot calibrate the drone's compass? Options: A) Away from steel, vehicles and electrical equipment B) On a vehicle hood, because it gives a flat surface C) Next to a transformer, so readings match the work site

Accepted Answer

A) Away from steel, vehicles and electrical equipment. AC 107-2A lists calibrating the compass as a preflight item, and a calibration only helps if it is done where the earth's magnetic field is not distorted. Steel, vehicles and electrical equipment create local magnetic fields that corrupt the calibration. Calibrating on a car hood or next to a transformer builds that error into the drone's heading reference.

Question 7

A new visual observer spots a small airplane but hesitates to speak up, not wanting to interrupt the remote PIC. Which CRM principle should the remote PIC have set up beforehand? Options: A) A rule that only the remote PIC calls out traffic B) A crew environment where open communication is encouraged and expected C) A practice of reporting traffic only when it is within 1 mile

Accepted Answer

B) A crew environment where open communication is encouraged and expected. AC 107-2A says a characteristic of CRM is an environment where open communication is encouraged and expected, involving the entire crew. Letting only the remote PIC call traffic wastes the VO's role of scanning the airspace under 14 CFR 107.33. A fixed distance threshold delays warnings that the remote PIC needs early.

Question 8

Which statement about the CTAF assigned to a particular airport is correct? Options: A) It may be a UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS or tower frequency, as published B) It is always 122.9, the frequency shared by every airport without a tower C) It is always the airport's ATIS frequency, so pilots hear the weather too

Accepted Answer

A) It may be a UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS or tower frequency, as published. AIM 4-1-9 says the CTAF may be a UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS or tower frequency and is identified in aeronautical publications. 122.9 is the MULTICOM frequency used only where there is no tower, FSS or UNICOM. ATIS is a separate recorded broadcast, not a frequency for exchanging traffic advisories.

Question 9

AC 107-2A preflight actions include having documentation available for inspection. Which documents does it name? Options: A) Remote pilot certificate, ID, registration and any waiver B) A maintenance logbook signed off by an FAA-certificated A&P mechanic C) A flight plan filed with flight service

Accepted Answer

A) Remote pilot certificate, ID, registration and any waiver. AC 107-2A says to ensure all necessary documentation is available, including the remote PIC's certificate, identification, aircraft registration and certificate of waiver if applicable, under 14 CFR 107.7. Part 107 does not require a mechanic-signed logbook. Part 107 flights do not require a filed flight plan.

Question 10

Late in a long day, a remote pilot's control inputs become less smooth, and they focus on the center of their view while missing things at the edges. What type of fatigue does this match? Options: A) Skill fatigue, a type of acute fatigue B) Chronic fatigue C) Fatigue caused by dehydration from altitude

Accepted Answer

A) Skill fatigue, a type of acute fatigue. The PHAK describes skill fatigue as a special type of acute fatigue with two effects: timing disruption, and disruption of the perceptual field, where the pilot concentrates on the center of vision and neglects the periphery. Chronic fatigue builds over a long period and is not described by these specific effects. Altitude dehydration does not apply to a pilot standing on the ground.

Question 11

Which antidote does the FAA pair with the anti-authority attitude? Options: A) It could happen to me. B) Follow the rules. They are usually right. C) Taking chances is foolish.

Accepted Answer

B) Follow the rules. They are usually right.. The PHAK pairs anti-authority, "Don't tell me," with "Follow the rules. They are usually right." "It could happen to me." is the antidote for invulnerability. "Taking chances is foolish." is the antidote for macho.

Question 12

Which action helps a person overcome hyperventilation? Options: A) Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag or talking aloud B) Breathing faster and deeper to take in more oxygen right away C) Drinking a caffeinated drink to stimulate normal breathing

Accepted Answer

A) Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag or talking aloud. The PHAK says treatment restores the normal carbon dioxide level; slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag or talking aloud helps, and recovery is usually rapid. Faster, deeper breathing makes the carbon dioxide loss worse. Caffeine is a stimulant and does not correct breathing.

Question 13

Which situation is an in-flight emergency that could justify deviating from a Part 107 rule under 107.21? Options: A) A client asking for one more photo from above 400 ft AGL B) Running an hour behind schedule on a multi-site survey job C) A battery fire that requires an immediate landing nearby

Accepted Answer

C) A battery fire that requires an immediate landing nearby. AC 107-2A describes an in-flight emergency as an unexpected and unforeseen serious occurrence that requires urgent, prompt action, and a battery fire fits. A client request is not an emergency, and a higher shot would need a waiver or must stay within the rules. Schedule pressure is a planning issue, not an emergency.

Question 14

During an automated mapping flight, the control link between the control station and the drone is lost. According to AC 107-2A, what would the automated aircraft do? Options: A) Shut down its motors at once and fall to the ground B) Hover in place until its battery is completely empty, with no other option C) Fly its programmed mission or return home to land, as configured

Accepted Answer

C) Fly its programmed mission or return home to land, as configured. AC 107-2A explains that in automated flight the flight control inputs come from the onboard autopilot, so if the remote PIC loses the control link the aircraft would continue the programmed mission or return home to land. An immediate motor shutdown is not the described behavior. Hovering until the battery is empty is not the automated response the AC describes, and the pilot should know the configured lost-link action before flight.

Question 15

A night flight is planned in a valley with patchy fog and surrounding hills. What does the AC 107-2A PAVE guidance ask the remote PIC to consider about the anti-collision light? Options: A) Only whether the light is bright enough to help light the scene for filming B) Nothing more, because a light rated for 3 SM meets the rule in any conditions C) Whether fog, hills or structures will keep anyone from seeing the light at 3 SM

Accepted Answer

C) Whether fog, hills or structures will keep anyone from seeing the light at 3 SM. AC 107-2A asks whether the pilot and other aircraft will be able to see the anti-collision light for at least 3 SM, considering weather phenomena such as fog, terrain such as hills and manmade obstacles. The light is for collision avoidance, not filming. A rating in clear air does not guarantee visibility through fog or around terrain.

Question 16

A helicopter is approaching at about 300 ft AGL toward the area where a drone is working at 250 ft AGL. What must the remote pilot do? Options: A) Yield, and do not pass over, under or ahead of it unless well clear B) Hold position, because the helicopter must avoid the drone below 500 ft C) Climb above the helicopter so it can pass underneath

Accepted Answer

A) Yield, and do not pass over, under or ahead of it unless well clear. 14 CFR 107.37(a) requires a small UA to yield the right of way to all aircraft and not pass over, under or ahead of them unless well clear. The helicopter has no duty to give way to the drone. Climbing over the helicopter is exactly the kind of maneuver the rule forbids unless the drone is well clear.

Question 17

In the AC 107-2A sample safety risk assessment table, when is each hazard's risk level of Low, Medium, High or Avoid assigned? Options: A) Only after all mitigations have been put in place B) After the flight, during the debrief C) Before the effects of any mitigation are considered

Accepted Answer

C) Before the effects of any mitigation are considered. AC 107-2A says its risk definitions are used to assign the level of risk prior to consideration of risk mitigation effects. Mitigations are then listed in a separate column to bring the risk down to an acceptable level. A debrief captures lessons learned but is not when the initial rating is assigned.

Question 18

Must a remote PIC use the Figure A-2 table in AC 107-2A for risk assessments? Options: A) No, it is an example; other tools, including ones the remote PIC develops, may be used B) Yes, and the completed table must be submitted to the FAA before each flight C) Yes, but only for operations at night

Accepted Answer

A) No, it is an example; other tools, including ones the remote PIC develops, may be used. AC 107-2A says the Figure A-2 example should not be considered a required format and that other tools, including self-developed ones, can be used. Part 107 has no rule requiring risk tables to be submitted. The AC ties no format to night operations.

Question 19

Why do manned pilots say the airport name at both the beginning and the end of a self-announce call? Options: A) Nearby airports may share the frequency, so it shows which airport is meant B) So the ATIS recording can log the call and the time it was made C) Saying the name twice replaces the need to state the runway number in the call

Accepted Answer

A) Nearby airports may share the frequency, so it shows which airport is meant. AIM 4-1-9 says aircraft at other nearby airports may be using the same UNICOM or MULTICOM frequency, so the airport name is spoken at the beginning and end of each self-announce call. ATIS does not record pilot calls. The AIM still wants the runway number used, not replaced.

Question 20

A remote pilot has spent the week arguing with a client over unpaid invoices and is worried about money. What does the AIM suggest about flying while dealing with more than the usual difficulties? Options: A) Fly as planned, because stress affects only manned pilots at altitude B) Consider delaying the flight until the difficulties are resolved C) Fly as planned, but drink extra coffee to stay alert

Accepted Answer

B) Consider delaying the flight until the difficulties are resolved. AIM 8-1-1 says most pilots do not leave stress on the ground, and when more than usual difficulties are being experienced, a pilot should consider delaying flight until they are satisfactorily resolved. Stress affects any pilot's judgment, not just manned pilots at altitude. Caffeine does not remove distraction and can add to dehydration.

Question 21

How may a remote pilot submit a required 107.9 accident report? Options: A) Online through the FAA, or by phone to a Regional Operations Center B) Only by certified mail to the NTSB in Washington C) Only through the drone manufacturer's customer support line, which forwards it

Accepted Answer

A) Online through the FAA, or by phone to a Regional Operations Center. AC 107-2A says the report may be submitted to the appropriate FAA Regional Operations Center electronically or by telephone, and reports may also be made to the responsible Flight Standards office. The NTSB has its own separate notification rules and does not take the place of the FAA report. A manufacturer cannot file the remote PIC's report.

Question 22

Why can a lithium battery fire flare up again after it seems to be out? Options: A) The pack holds a small fuel reservoir that keeps burning B) The casing's built-in flame retardant wears off about a minute after ignition C) One cell in thermal runaway can heat its neighbors into thermal runaway

Accepted Answer

C) One cell in thermal runaway can heat its neighbors into thermal runaway. FAA SAFO 09013 explains that once one cell in a battery pack goes into thermal runaway, it produces enough heat to push adjacent cells into thermal runaway, so the fire can flare repeatedly as each cell ruptures. That is why cooling after extinguishing matters. Drone lithium packs have no fuel reservoir, and the SAFO does not describe a timed flame retardant.

Question 23

Which traffic pattern leg is flown parallel to the landing runway, in the direction opposite to landing? Options: A) Base leg B) Crosswind leg C) Downwind leg

Accepted Answer

C) Downwind leg. AIM 4-3-2 defines the downwind leg as a flight path parallel to the landing runway in the opposite direction of landing. The base leg and the crosswind leg are both at right angles to the runway, off the approach end and the takeoff end respectively.

Question 24

Which statement correctly compares the rods and cones of the eye? Options: A) Rods give color vision and fine detail; cones work best in darkness and detect motion B) Rods are packed into the fovea at the center of vision, so central vision is best at night C) Cones give color and fine detail in good light; rods detect motion and work in dim light

Accepted Answer

C) Cones give color and fine detail in good light; rods detect motion and work in dim light. The PHAK says cones handle color and fine detail in high light and are concentrated in the fovea, while rods detect movement and provide vision in dim light. Rods cannot discern color. The fovea has virtually no rods, which is why there is a night blind spot in the center.

Question 25

A drone manufacturer says motor replacement must be done by its authorized service center. What does AC 107-2A advise? Options: A) Follow the manufacturer instructions, and if not using its service, consider personnel familiar with that specific small UAS B) Only an FAA-certificated airframe and powerplant mechanic may replace the motor C) Manufacturer instructions do not matter under Part 107

Accepted Answer

A) Follow the manufacturer instructions, and if not using its service, consider personnel familiar with that specific small UAS. AC 107-2A says maintenance should follow the manufacturer instructions, and if the operator does not use the manufacturer or its recommended personnel, it should consider maintenance personnel familiar with that small UAS. Part 107 has no rule requiring a certificated mechanic. Calling manufacturer instructions irrelevant ignores the AC guidance.

Question 26

At a nontowered airport, the wind sock is stretched out toward the west. Where is the wind coming from? Options: A) From the west B) It cannot be told without a tetrahedron C) From the east

Accepted Answer

C) From the east. AIM 4-3-4 says the large end of a wind cone or wind sock points into the wind, so a sock streaming toward the west has its large end toward the east and the wind is from the east. Reading it as a west wind reverses the sock. A tetrahedron shows landing direction and the AIM cautions against using it for wind.

Question 27

In Figure 20, a remote pilot near area 3 wants current wind and altimeter data from Elizabeth City CGAS/Rgnl (ECG). Which frequency provides it? Options: A) 124.375 B) 120.5 C) 122.95

Accepted Answer

A) 124.375. The data block lists ASOS 124.375, the Automated Surface Observing System broadcast of current wind, visibility and altimeter. 120.5 is the part-time control tower frequency, not a weather broadcast. 122.95 is the UNICOM advisory frequency.

Question 28

In Figure 20, a remote pilot flying near area 2 wants to listen to local traffic calls at Chesapeake Rgnl (CPK), which has no tower. Which frequency should be monitored? Options: A) 123.675 B) 118.9 C) 123.075

Accepted Answer

C) 123.075. The C in a circle follows 123.075, marking it as the CTAF where pilots at a nontowered airport announce their positions. 123.675 is the AWOS-3 automated weather broadcast. 118.9 is the Norfolk Approach frequency printed in the nearby contact box, which is not where local pattern traffic calls are made.

Question 29

In Figure 20, the Newport News/Williamsburg Intl (PHF) data block shows CT - 118.7 followed by a star and a C in a circle. What does the star tell a remote pilot? Options: A) The tower operates part-time, and 118.7 serves as the CTAF when the tower is closed B) The airport has a rotating beacon that operates only at night C) The airport is surrounded by Class C airspace

Accepted Answer

A) The tower operates part-time, and 118.7 serves as the CTAF when the tower is closed. On the sectional legend a star after the tower frequency means the tower is part-time, and the C in a circle marks that frequency as the CTAF when the tower is closed. A rotating beacon is a separate star symbol drawn on the airport symbol itself, not after CT. The airspace here is Class D, shown by dashed blue lines, not Class C.

Question 30

In Figure 20, the Chesapeake Rgnl (CPK) data block near area 2 includes RP 23. What does this tell a remote pilot watching for manned traffic? Options: A) Runway 23 is 2,300 ft long B) Aircraft using runway 23 fly a right-hand traffic pattern C) Runway 23 is closed to fixed-wing aircraft

Accepted Answer

B) Aircraft using runway 23 fly a right-hand traffic pattern. RP followed by a runway number means that runway uses right-hand traffic, so manned aircraft turn right in the pattern for runway 23. Runway length is shown separately as a number in hundreds of feet, here 55 for 5,500 ft. RP does not mean a runway is closed. Knowing the pattern helps a remote pilot see and avoid traffic as required by 14 CFR 107.37.

Question 31

In Figure 20, which frequency in the Norfolk Intl data block near area 1 is the control tower frequency? Options: A) 127.15 B) 116.9 C) 120.8

Accepted Answer

C) 120.8. The CT entry in the airport data block gives the primary tower frequency, which is 120.8 at Norfolk Intl. 127.15 is the ATIS broadcast, which gives recorded weather and airport information. 116.9 belongs to the Norfolk VORTAC box, a navigation aid, not the airport.

Question 32

In Figure 26, the Cooperstown (S32) data block reads 1424 *L 35. What does this mean? Options: A) Field elevation 1,424 ft AGL, lights on request only, and runway 35 in use B) Field elevation 1,424 ft MSL, runway lighting with limitations, and a longest runway of 3,500 ft C) Runways 14 and 24, lighted, with a field elevation of 3,500 ft MSL

Accepted Answer

B) Field elevation 1,424 ft MSL, runway lighting with limitations, and a longest runway of 3,500 ft. The data block gives the elevation in feet MSL, then L for lighting, where the asterisk means limitations exist (check the Chart Supplement), then the longest runway in hundreds of feet. Elevations are always MSL, and 35 is a length, not a runway number. 1424 is not a pair of runway numbers.

Question 33

In Figure 26, Jamestown Regional (JMS) has no control tower. Which frequency is its CTAF? Options: A) 123.0 B) 118.425 C) 114.5

Accepted Answer

A) 123.0. The C in a circle after 123.0 in the Jamestown data block marks the CTAF. 118.425 is the ASOS weather broadcast. 114.5 is the frequency of the Jamestown VOR-DME, a navaid, not an airport traffic frequency.

Question 34

In Figure 26, the label SPRAGUE (Pvt) appears south of area 3. What does it tell a remote pilot? Options: A) It is a heliport for emergency medical flights only B) It is a private use airport, so manned aircraft may still take off and land there C) It marks an abandoned airport no longer in use

Accepted Answer

B) It is a private use airport, so manned aircraft may still take off and land there. Pvt means a private use airport, shown with an R in a circle; it is not open to the public but still has manned traffic, so the remote pilot must yield right of way. The data shows elevation 1,555 ft MSL and a 2,700 ft runway with no lighting. Heliports use an H symbol, and abandoned airports carry a different marking.

Question 35

In Figure 69, near area 4, what are the CTAF and field elevation of Bishop (07R)? Options: A) CTAF 122.9 and elevation 32 ft MSL B) CTAF 123.0 and elevation 55 ft MSL C) CTAF 122.9 and elevation 55 ft MSL

Accepted Answer

C) CTAF 122.9 and elevation 55 ft MSL. The Bishop data block reads 55 L 32 122.9 with a C, meaning elevation 55 ft MSL, a lighted 3,200 ft runway and CTAF 122.9. 32 is the runway length in hundreds of feet, not the elevation. 123.0 is the CTAF printed for Alice International, a different airport.

Question 36

In Figure 69, area 1 is near McCampbell-Porter airport. Which frequency should a remote pilot monitor for local traffic advisories? Options: A) 118.775 B) 122.7 C) 120.9

Accepted Answer

B) 122.7. The McCampbell-Porter data block lists 122.7 with a C, marking the CTAF. 118.775 follows AWOS-3 and is the automated weather broadcast. 120.9 is the Corpus Christi Approach frequency printed in the contact box to the west.

Question 37

In Figure 69, Alice International (ALI), near area 7, is printed in magenta. What does that tell a remote pilot? Options: A) It has a control tower on 119.225 B) It is a military airport closed to civil traffic C) It has no operating control tower, and pilots self-announce on the CTAF, 123.0

Accepted Answer

C) It has no operating control tower, and pilots self-announce on the CTAF, 123.0. Magenta airport symbols and data blocks show airports without an operating control tower, and the C after 123.0 marks the CTAF. 119.225 is listed after ASOS and is the automated weather frequency, not a tower. Nothing on the chart marks Alice as military.

Question 38

In Figure 69, the note See NOTAMs/Directory for Class D eff hrs appears near Cabaniss NOLF (NGW). Where should a remote pilot check when that Class D is in effect? Options: A) In the sectional chart legend B) In NOTAMs and the Chart Supplement C) On the nearest airport's AWOS broadcast

Accepted Answer

B) In NOTAMs and the Chart Supplement. The note means the Class D is part time, and its effective hours are published in the Chart Supplement (formerly the Airport/Facility Directory) and changes appear by NOTAM. The chart legend explains symbols but not hours. An AWOS broadcasts weather, not airspace hours.

Question 39

In Figure 69, Kingsville NAS (NQI) lists ATIS 276.2. Why can a remote pilot not hear it on a typical civil VHF aviation handheld radio? Options: A) ATIS at Kingsville is broadcast only when the tower is closed B) 276.2 is the navaid identifier, not a frequency C) 276.2 is a UHF military frequency outside the civil VHF aviation band

Accepted Answer

C) 276.2 is a UHF military frequency outside the civil VHF aviation band. Civil VHF aviation radios cover roughly 118 to 137 MHz, and 276.2 MHz is in the UHF band used by military aircraft. Nothing on the chart limits ATIS to tower-closed hours. Navaid identifiers are letters, such as CRP, not numbers.

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